Centre extends last date to apply for Chief Information Commissioner's post in CIC

New Delhi, The Central government on Friday extended the last date to apply for the chief information commissioner's post in the transparency watchdog Central Information Commission till this month end.
The Personnel Ministry had last month sought applications from eligible candidates for the post. The last date to receive the application was June 20.
"It has now been decided, with the approval of the competent authority, to extend the last date of receipt of the applications for appointment of Chief Information Commissioner in Central Information Commission up to 30th June, 2025 ," said an order from the Personnel Ministry.
The terms and conditions and other eligibility criteria of the service of the chief information commissioner shall remain the same, it said.
The Central Information Commission , mandated to decide appeals and complaints under the Right to Information Act, is headed by a chief information commissioner and can have a maximum of 10 information commissioners .
Besides Chief Information Commissioner Heeralal Samariya, two ICs are presently working in the commission.
Former IAS officer Samariya is going to complete his term later this year.
The chief information commissioner, according to the RTI Act, shall hold office and shall not be eligible for reappointment.
No chief information commissioner shall hold office after attaining the age of 65 years, it says.
Born on September 14, 1960, Samariya was sworn in as the chief information commissioner by President Droupadi Murmu on November 6, 2023.
The RTI Act provides that the chief information commissioner "shall be a person of eminence in public life with wide knowledge and experience in law, science and technology, social service, management, journalism, mass-media or administration and governance".

Try Our AI Features

Explore what Daily8 AI can do for you:

Learn with AIFact CheckingText to SpeechAI Summary

Related Articles

Mint

34 minutes ago

• Mint

Close investigations swiftly, speed up refunds: finance minister tells tax officials

New Delhi: Finance minister Nirmala Sitharaman on Friday directed senior officials of the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) to close investigations swiftly, speed up tax refunds, and make goods and services tax (GST) registration easier. At a meeting in the capital, Sitharaman also asked the officials to resolve grievances of businesses promptly while maintaining focus on tackling tax evasion and wrongful tax credit claims. The minister reviewed the performance of Central GST and customs authorities and asked the principal chief commissioners, chief commissioners, and director generals of CBIC to enhance performance, fill vacant posts, and enhance administrative efficiency. Officials informed the minister that ₹ 2.23 trillion worth of GST evasion has been detected as of 2024-25, with voluntary payments totaling ₹ 28,909 crore. Sitharaman was engaging with the top brass of the Central government's indirect tax administration to ensure that ease of doing business and ease of tax compliance remain the guiding principle for the tax administration while also ensuring compliance. Reforms, reducing paper work for businesses, and de-regulation are top priorities for the Central government as it seeks to unlock India's unrealised economic potential. Sitharaman's budget speech on 1 February was centred around the reforms needed across sectors. The minister's address to tax officials has set a clear tone—that efficiency, accountability, and taxpayer-centricity must drive indirect tax administration, said Rajat Mohan, senior partner at chartered accountancy firm AMRG and Associates. 'The sharp rise in GST audit coverage to 88.74% and the 94.3% return-filing compliance reflects a matured compliance ecosystem. However, the vast gap between ₹ 2.23 trillion in tax evasion detected and the ₹ 28,909 crore recovered demands immediate focus on enforcement efficiency,' said Mohan. CBIC officials informed Sitharaman during Friday's meeting that the average time for resolving grievances had been reduced to nine days from the stipulated 21-day timeline, and that 95-97% of appeals are disposed of within a month. This track record has placed CBIC among the top five out of 90 Central ministries in the Centralized Public Grievance Redress and Monitoring System rankings since February 2024. The officials also told the minister the national average for monthly GST return filing stood above 94% in FY25, and that 85% of tax refund claims are processed within the statutory 60-day limit. GST audit coverage rose from 62.21% in FY23 to 88.74% in FY25. Sitharaman directed the officials to improve in performance parameters such as GST registration, processing of refunds, and handling taxpayers' grievances. 'Simplifying GST registration, clarifying documentation for principal place of business, and mandating helpdesks are much-needed reforms that will ease on-ground hurdles for taxpayers,' said Mohan of AMRG and Associates. Amit Maheshwari, tax partner at AKM Global, a tax and consulting firm, said GST audit coverage has improved significantly, with zero repeat audits in three years—a move that ensures fairness without burdening taxpayers. Sitharaman also urged customs authorities to reduce the dwell time of consignments at seaports, airports, and inland container depots for both imports and exports, and emphasised that faster cargo clearance is crucial to enhance India's global trade competitiveness and ease of doing business. The minister also directed that disciplinary proceedings against officials at different levels be concluded expeditiously.

Indian Express

an hour ago

• Indian Express

Daily subject-wise quiz : Environment and Geography MCQs on human-wildlife conflict, International Big Cat Alliance and more (Week 115)

UPSC Essentials brings to you its initiative of subject-wise quizzes. These quizzes are designed to help you revise some of the most important topics from the static part of the syllabus. Attempt today's subject quiz on Environment and Geography to check your progress. 🚨 Click Here to read the UPSC Essentials magazine for June 2025. Share your views and suggestions in the comment box or at With reference to the International Big Cat Alliance, consider the following statements: 1. There are 95 range countries which fall within the natural distribution of the big cats. 2. All UN member countries can become members after the framework agreement is signed. 3. The first Assembly of the International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA) was held in Moscow. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Explanation — The first Assembly of the International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA) was held in New Delhi, presided over by the Union Minister for Environment, Forests and Climate Change, Bhupender Yadav. Hence, statement 3 is not correct. — In March 2024, the Indian government established the IBCA through the National Tiger Conservation Authority, which reports to the Ministry of Environment, Forests, and Climate Change. Its mandate is to protect seven big cats: the tiger, lion, leopard, snow leopard, cheetah, jaguar, and puma. — It was created 'to facilitate collaboration and synergy among stakeholders, consolidating successful conservation practices and expertise and replicating them in range countries.' The Union government has set aside Rs 150 crore for the purpose from 2023-24 to 2027-28. — The big cats have 95 range countries (those within a species' natural distribution), which include Canada, China, Congo, Ghana, Brazil, Iran, Nepal, Pakistan, Russia, and the United States. Hence, statement 1 is correct. — All UN member countries can become members after the framework agreement is signed and conveyed through a Note Verbale, a method of formal diplomatic communication. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer. Which of the following is/are the reason which led to the increase in human-wildlife conflict? 1. Fluctuations in wildlife population 2. Animals forced to move out of their habitats 3. Grazing of domestic cattle in forest areas 4. Changes in cropping pattern Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Explanation — Kerala has sought the Union government's nod to kill wild animals that pose a threat to human life and properties. The state wants the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 amended so it can be allowed to kill wild animals that foray into human habitats. — The primary problem animals include tigers, leopards, elephants, bison, wild boar, bonnet macaques, and peafowl. Although bonnet macaques (a monkey species) and peafowl pose little threat to humans, their regular raids have driven farmers to abandon enormous swaths of agricultural land. — Major reasons include regional fluctuations in wildlife populations, animals forced to relocate when the quality of their habitats deteriorates, domestic cattle grazing in forest regions, changes in cropping patterns, and so on. But, more crucially, the population growth of wild pigs and various monkey species is causing havoc on human habitats. Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer. With reference to the National Mission for a Green India, consider the following statements: 1. It was launched in 2014. 2. Its main objective is to protect, restore, and enhance India's forest and tree cover, using a blend of climate adaptation and mitigation strategies. 3. The Western Ghats mountain ranges are not included in the Green India Mission. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Explanation — According to the new Green India Mission (GIM) whitepaper, the Ministry of Environment, Forests, and Climate Change would prioritise the restoration of sensitive landscapes such as the Aravallis and Western Ghats mountain ranges, mangroves, and the Indian Himalayan area. — The amended document claimed that a'micro-ecosystem' approach will be used to make interventions in sensitive landscapes such as the Aravallis, Western Ghats, arid parts of North West India, mangroves, and the Indian Himalayan region. Hence, statement 3 is not correct. — The National Mission for a Green India was established in February 2014 as one of the eight main missions of India's National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC). Hence, statement 1 is correct. — GIM's primary goal is to maintain, restore, and improve India's forest and tree cover using a combination of climate adaptation and mitigation techniques. Hence, statement 2 is correct. — One of the mission's primary goals was to expand forest and tree cover on 5 million hectares of forest and non-forest land, as well as improve the quality of forest cover on an additional 5 million hectares. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer. With reference to the Indian Flapshell Turtle, consider the following statements: 1. It is a small softshell turtle with a carapace length of up to 350 mm. 2. These species live only in the oceans. 3. They are found only in the Indian Subcontinent. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Explanation — The Indian Flapshell Turtle is a small softshell turtle with a carapace length of up to 350 mm. Nesting often begins in late summer and continues through the monsoon season, which lasts from July to November. Hence, statement 1 is correct. — These species live in a wide range of aquatic habitats, including rivers and streams, reservoirs, marshes, ponds, lakes, and even salt marshes, rice fields, gutters, and canals in urban areas. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. — It is ubiquitous in brackish water lagoons on India's east coast and is frequently seen in irrigation canals and tanks, as well as stagnant paddy fields. — Distribution: India, Bangladesh, Myanmar, Nepal and Pakistan. The Indian Flapshell Turtle is native to the Indian Subcontinent, and it's also found in some parts of Myanmar (not considered part of the Indian subcontinent). Hence, statement 3 is not correct. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer. Which of the following species exhibit bioluminescence? 1. Jellyfish 2. Worms 3. Sea stars 4. Sharks Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 3 and 4 only Explanation — Bioluminescence is the ability of a living creature to generate and radiate light. This phenomenon is unusual in terrestrial ecosystems but prevalent in marine environments. — Many marine animals, including bacteria, algae, jellyfish, worms, crabs, sea stars, fish, and sharks, can create their own light. Deep-living and planktonic creatures exhibit higher luminescence than shallow species. Furthermore, the appearance of bioluminescent light varies depending on the environment and the creature in which it is present. — According to NOAA, bioluminescence is the product of an enzyme reaction. An enzyme accelerates a chemical reaction by assisting a substrate in reacting. The enzyme is reused in the process rather than being converted into another molecule Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. Daily Subject-wise quiz — History, Culture, and Social Issues (Week 114) Daily subject-wise quiz — Polity and Governance (Week 115) Daily subject-wise quiz — Science and Technology (Week 115) Daily subject-wise quiz — Economy (Week 115) Daily subject-wise quiz — Environment and Geography (Week 114) Daily subject-wise quiz – International Relations (Week 114) Subscribe to our UPSC newsletter and stay updated with the news cues from the past week. Stay updated with the latest UPSC articles by joining our Telegram channel – IndianExpress UPSC Hub, and follow us on Instagram and X.

The Hindu

3 hours ago

• The Hindu

Declare wild pigs as vermin in conflict zones, Kerala asks Centre in fresh appeal

Forest Minister A.K. Saseendran has once again written to Union Minister for Environment, Forest and Climate Change Bhupender Yadav reiterating the State's key demands to address the increasing incidents of human-wildlife conflict in Kerala. The State's demands chiefly include an amendment to the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, and the declaration of wild pigs as vermin, at least temporarily in identified hotspots. The renewed appeal comes in the light of a letter from the Union Ministry, explaining the provisions of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, particularly those pertaining to hunting animals listed under Schedules I and II. 'Limits powers' Arguing that these limited the powers of the Chief Wildlife Warden and hampered timely action, Mr. Saseendran also flagged the ambiguity in the definition of the term 'dangerous animal' in the Act. Highlighting the growing threats posed by wild animals in human habitats, he emphasised the impracticality of the current procedures. He pointed out that due to these constraints, the Forest department had been unable to act swiftly, thereby intensifying the conflict and endangering human lives and livelihoods. He also proposed simplifying the Standard Operating Procedures for eliminating dangerous animals. The State has also called for declaring wild pigs as vermin in villages identified as hotspots. 'Such a declaration, even if limited to a duration of six months, would greatly facilitate site-specific management of the species in these areas and contribute significantly to mitigate the ongoing human-wildlife conflicts,' the letter states. The government also renewed its demand for an assistance of ₹620 crore to implement preventive measures to tackle the unfolding crisis.